ETERNAL TORMENT FACT OR FIGMENTATION

ETERNAL TORMENT FACT OR FIGMENTATION?

"Come now let us reason together, saith the Lord."

Isa.1:18

Why is it that so many Christian leader resist and wrestle with solid scriptural evidences and truths of the ultimate salvation and reconciliation of ALL THINGS.? Is it because only a minority of theologians now support this view? Does not history show that a majority of them did hold this view for the first four centuries after Christ? Do they resist out of the fear of man and certain reprisal from his religious establishment? Is it fear because of glaring error in counterfeits of this glorious truth? Is it a case of blind leading the blind in teaching and tradition? Is it simple lack of faith? Is it the inability for whatever -reason, to see much beyond the letter of the word--beyond translation inconsistencies? Maybe? But beyond this, is there not a simple yet profound basic answer?

Has not Satan been totally defeated by Christ at Calvary? Has not his relegated chain of sinful power over all of God's earthly creation been broken? Does not the devil know this and therefore is now propagating a deceptive lie that he himself still has, and always will have, tormenting power over men's souls, even to hold them captive to his will forever more? Is he not fighting a losing battle, fighting hard to blind even dedicated Christians from seeing that the stronghold of his deceptive power over mankind is broken? Is he not, [but yet only in God's purposeful omniscient and providential allowance], still pridefully through man, seeking to exalt his consigned power and will above the Almighty's, knowing his time is short? Does the holy word not show he is ordained to prevail for a season only? Is not the Holy Spirit, line upon line, beginning to expose this lie by bringing forth a greater light of truth, and shall not the truth prevail to the uttermost in God's timing to set all the captives free?

How can we read that--of Him, and through Him, and to Him, are ALL THINGS and then in our restricting doctrine believe and teach only SOME THINGS? Why do sincere men continue to believe contrary to God's word, that He is the Saviour of only SOME men, who will have only SOME men to be save and come to the knowledge of the truth? Why do so many find their hearts so slow to believe God at His word but quick to believe the flesh and the devil?

Was the potential knowledge of evil placed in the very midst of Eden by God or by Satan? Was the curse of the original fall placed there by God or by Satan? If God Almighty and no other primarily has the authority to allow the devil the limited freedom of first roaming the garden of Eden and then the earth seemingly as he will, [and he has the same extent of freedom in the mind of man], is God Himself then not the one ultimately responsible to somehow negate all the negative effect? Has He not promised He would? Is He not now in the merciful process of carrying this out through the unconditional gift of grace by faith from the Lord Jesus Christ?

Is not the purpose of evil ever working in a divinely controlled order toward an ultimate goal of good? Are not all things working together for the good of those who love the Lord? Is God in any way able to be limited or hindered? does not our sovereign and omnipotent creator merely use opposition to His revealed will to mysteriously work out His blessed hidden intentions? Were we not created and purposed to experience and taste of evil spirit so we could of ourselves come to know and truthfully appreciate by experience---that opposite holy Spirit which is righteous and godly? Could we truly appreciate holiness or even attain to it, without despising profanity?

If the purpose and existence of evil was eternal, never ending, would that not defeat the ultimate purpose of its own creation and existence allowed and permitted of the creator? Would it not also defeat for the most part, the very purpose of Christ's existence? Were the creation ever damned to the evils of eternal torment or punishment, would not God because of His eternal nature of mercy and love, suffer Himself in eternal grief for the creatures in the world that he so much loved? Or does He stop loving them when they live their lives without ever accepting Him---turning them over to eternal grief? If God created an eternal hell, was it included the works which He pronounced "very good?"

If God is the efficient cause of all that is...then did He not somehow play a part in the authoring of evil and sin? And if He is, how can it be morally right for Him to condemn man to an endless hell or annihilation for doing what He directly or indirectly, caused him to do? Does not His own permissive will allow God to permit whatever He thinks fit to permit or to hinder or totally restrain? In whatever He permits, does He also not regulate, and sooner or later use it to bring about glorious and wise purposes and results of His own choosing?

If God was truly manifest in Christ to destroy the works of the devil, and yet most souls are to be held captive in the power of sin and death forever or be annihilated as even the world suggests, will not Satan have succeeded in ultimately destroying or rendering futile most of the works and goals of God Almighty? How could God be all in all if any less than all remained outside of Him and apart from Him in death? How could death in any form remain if the life and love of God were in all, and all were in life? Does not the scripture say that the last enemy even death will be swallowed up and destroyed? Is not the devils power present in all sin and death that holds humanity captive to his will? Will not the devil and all his works be totally destroyed leaving God to be all in all?

If God Almighty truly is all powerful, and unregenerate man has no power of himself to save himself except God draw him and convince him of his need for a Saviour, how is it their loving Creator will apparently not exercise His power in, and for them all? Where are His bowels of mercy and compassion when He sees all of His helpless creation in need of His gift of love? Can God truly love and not apply this, His own nature, in truth and also in deed? Is His love in word only and not in power of action or deed? Does love omit? Will it come to be forever frustrated? Or shall every man be given life in God's own divine order? How else shall the grace that brings salvation appear to every man? How else shall he see the travail of His soul and be satisfied? Does not the scripture say that God opens His hand to satisfy the desires of every living thing?

Who is, and always shall be supreme, in or over all things? God, Satan, or man? Is the strength and power of God to be limited or nullified by either man or Satan's will power, apart from the will of God? Can God's hand be shortened that He is unable to save or that He will not save? Can man frustrate God? If he doesn't save all would not God be eternally frustrated? If we had sufficient power would we not deliver all men from their sin?

Is it in God's creative and redemptive plan, His final will and purpose, His intents, or the ultimate scope of His decrees, that any should be lost for eternity? How can the will of God prevail in His all encompassing and positive decrees if physical death fixes the eternal condition of all men? How could ALL Israel be saved if this be so? How could ALL men be drawn unto Christ? How could all the creation, the created universe, be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God? How could every knee bow and every knee willingly confess to God's glorious liberation? Does the Holy Ghost use unnecessary force?

Does God require any carnal assistance from man to fulfill His final redemptive and restorative purposes? Shall not the progressive, ever increasing accumulative process of His determined will, bring about according to the immutability of His written and spoken word, the ultimate fulfilled goals of all His purposes? Do you really think anything is too hard for God? Is our eternal God not righteous? Does the scripture not say that the desire of the righteous shall be granted?

What is God's ultimate purpose in love, in righteousness, in justice? Is it to punish men forever? Or perhaps merely to negate man's existence, hence His own creation in planned oblivion? Shall God forever allow the rebellion and resistance of man to nullify His glorious all-encompassing objectives? What real total victory would Christ's death accomplish if He was not also going to personally give His life to all the individuals for whom He died. Why die for all foreknowing only a few would find life? Does God suffer for lack of foresight? If man has any influence in His own destiny, why did Jesus die? Is eternal torment and misery or ultimate annihilation to be the good tidings of great joy that the scripture says shall be to all people? Does the belief of eternal punishment cause the believer to rejoice with joy unspeakable and full of glory? Can a belief that is any thing short of universal salvation, fill the soul with peace and joy?

Since Christ died and rose again for all becoming a propitiation for the sins of the whole world, and as it be in the fullness of truth that no one can really resist His saving power, what is to prevent all from receiving salvation thus fulfilling His determined and decreed will of salvation for all? Shall not God perform the ultimate intents of His heart? Who can forever resist or change His will? Who are we that we can effectively argue against God? If God declares the end from the beginning, can the ultimate destiny of mankind be contrary to His will? If the PROVISION of the atonement is UNLIMITED, will not its APPLICATION and APPROPRIATION be also? If Christ died for the sins of all men and has paid the penalty for all their sin, how is it that men will continue to be punished for their sins forever and ever?

Does salvation rest in man's abilities or power, or in God's? Shall not He draw all men to Himself or is it that men do draw Him to themselves? Is God a man that He is ever limited in any way to His mighty acts? Is God responsible only for the resurrection, and man responsible to put it into effect? Did God only go half way to rescue man? Wouldn't that ensure failure of much of His will?

Is salvation based on our acts or on God's acts? Our works or his works? Our ways or His ways? Our choosing or His choosing? Is it based on human desire or divine desire? Our will or His will? On Human faith or a gift of faith that must come from the faithfulness of Christ and the Father Himself? Is it based on our thoughts or His thoughts? Our, life or the life Christ lived for us?

Is man's salvation predestined or self-destined? Is it predetermined and decided by God or is self determined and decided by man? Is it self ordained or is it God ordained? Is it self willed or God willed? Are we chosen and accepted of God or do we choose and accept of ourselves? Does the clay form the potter or the Potter the clay? Is God dependent upon man, or is man dependent upon God? Is grace dependent on man's actions or man's action dependent of God's grace? Who can resist His will? Who can know it until He reveal it? Who is like unto our God?

If God's choice of mankind in salvation is determined by mankind's choice of Him, then wouldn't we be the initiator and He the responder? Would not this contradict scripture and be inconsistent both with the sovereignty of God and with the naure of grace? Is not the response which men are required to express the RESULT of God's saving work, and not the CAUSE of it?

If God is dependent upon man in any way, then would this not negate and deny the right of God to choose as he will? Does not the type of free will teaching that leads to an eternal hell conclusion, deny this basic right of God to chose as He will? Do you really think man has the power to deny the right of God to choose as He wills and pleases? And do we really think that man always has the power to choose as he really wills? Is man really any freer to carry out his own will than is Satan? Is Satan not totally subservient to God? If even the devil's will power is stronger and more influential than man's how much more powerful and directive is the working will of God in authoritative sovereignty over both man and Satan? Can our perfect God have a fallible corruptible or will or faulty will which is in anyway way subject to failure? If under any circumstances, God wills or even directs mans soul to an eternal hell, how does he really differ from Satan?

If God wills all men to be saved and is rendered impotent to carry out to perfect completion the desire of His will; and if man prevails in his rebellious will desiring not to be saved, is this not giving omnipotence and sovereignty to man rather than to the Almighty? Is it not actually deification of man and dethronement of God forever? God would hardly be considered mighty, much less Almighty, would He not? Is not a doctrine that renders the Lord as being less than totally fruitful and short of total success and perfection in all that He wills, a doctrine that is nigh unto blasphemy?

If personal salvation were left up to man to decide or accept and this was determined solely according to the choosing of his own free will, would it not be hypothetically possible for none to accept? Is there even one iota of that which man calls chance in the power of grace? If the choice of salvation or rejection of it, was left to man himself, would this not then in fact be salvation by chance? Do we serve a God of chance? Do men discover and accept their personal salvation by chance or by grace? Which is most scriptural? Would God leave his decreed will and promises up to chance? Would He leave such an essential thing in His plan as salvation up to mere chance?

If salvation is totally by grace without man's works, why do men continue to believe and teach that it is ultimately left up to us to accept or reject Christ; that He gives us a chance? Is salvation really dependent or conditional upon the chancery working of man's will power? Is it God's will to only give man a chance to be saved? Can the Almighty's unlimited loving and determining will be negated in any way by man's limited, alienated human will? Man can change His own will and God can change man's will but can man change God's will, for who can hinder it? If God wills all men to be saved, can we correctly and safely infer that most will be damned? If the scripture said that God will have all men to be damned, could we safely infer that most will be saved?

If salvation is totally by grace and if as some believe, God only elected and foreknew some men, and God predestined that same some to be saved and serve Him and the rest of mankind to perish, then why did He bother dying and making provision for all of mankind? Would it not for the most part have been in vain? Did He create anyone or anything in vain? What about the millions apart from Israel in Old Test. and even New Test. times that were never presented the true plan of salvation or even heard the true gospel? Must these suffer forever in hell because of their apparent unfortunate circumstance? Can Jesus be the Saviour of all and the Saviour of the world if all the world is not ultimately to be saved by Him? Are not the tender mercies of the eternal Lord over all His works. Does this attribute change or cease?

Would our all seeing, all knowing God in His marvelous foreknowledge, create mankind in vain, knowing full well he would ultimately have to punish them or destroy them, either in eternal hellfire or in fruitless annihilation? Why would He bother creating individuals in the first place if He foresaw that their end was to be worse...or at least no better than before their creation? Does not God punish us for our profit that we might be partakers of His holiness? Would endless punishment be for anyone's profit? Is it God's plan that mankind as a whole continue in regression, or is His plan that the creation be set free from the regressive bondage of corruption into the glorious and mature liberty of His life that will have developed in God's firstfruit sons?

If it is God's perfect will that all be saved, why would He only predestinate a comparative few to salvation and the rest to an eternal hell or a total destruction in oblivion? Would not God Himself then be working eternally against His own determined will and purpose? Would not many of His holy attributes including His omnipotence, be compromised? Could He who is perfect in all His ways and works, settle for anything less than fulfillment and perfection in His own works? Is the work of the holy spirit not geared to saving all men? Can the perfect One's perfect work somehow fail in its objectives? Will God prove to be a failure? Will His works be found wanting and unfulfilled? Can Love fail? Will the Lord cast off forever?

If God's perfect will is that all men be saved, why would He created all men with a free will so powerful that it could resist His own will forever? Can the Almighty ever, in any way or at any time, be a victim to the will of His own creation? Is He to be a victim to the will and the workings of the curse which he Himself instituted and purposely upholds for the time being? Is the ever present power of God's will in salvation limited in its action to the realm of mere hoping or wishing? Is God limited to just wishing or hoping men will accept him? Is His rescue operation contingent in waiting upon man to call for a lifeboat? Who is it the Bible teaches is helpless? Is it God or is it man? If God would save all men, but cannot, does not this negate His infinite power? If God desires to save them, but will not, does this not negate His infinite goodness?

Would God require us to pray in faith for all men unless He actually intends to save them all? Does not God's word say..that when we ask Him anything according to His will, He will grant the petition desired? Is it not His will to save all men? When we pray that he will do just that according to His will, should we not believe Him? Are we not to pray in faith and not to doubt? Do you really think God won't do it, can't do it or wills not to do it? Maybe some don't believe Him, can't believe Him or think He is a liar? If you believe endless torment to be true, why should you desire and even pray that it may prove false?

If God's word is true that He wills all to be saved and that he will sooner or later grant the petitions of our desire.....why is it then that when we ask sincerely in prayer for Him to save our loved ones...or any or even all men for that matter...why do we often see our loved ones and most all other men dying still as unconverted sinners? Is carnal man's limited knowledge of grace and death to make the promises of God's word of none effect? Is God slack concerning His promises? Is He unreliable or untrustworthy? Would He lie about such an important thing? Would He ever be found as a liar? Why do men believe so strongly that the mere death of the physical body hinders forever the salvation of an unregenerated soul? Does not God begin in saving the spiritual makeup of man rather than the physical body? What's to prevent Him from beginning a work in the spirit after death? Does he only have power over all flesh and not over all soul and spirit? Is there anything to hard or to late for Him to accomplish?

Can man hinder God in any way in subduing all things unto Himself? Why do so many insist that He is only going to subdue some things and that even some of these will not be subdued unto Himself? Is He unwilling or even unable to subdue all things? Can things come into a divine subjection unto Himself, unto love, apart from a remedial change? Who initiates that change, man or God? Who carries it out, man or God? Shall not every knee bow and every tongue confess that He is Lord? Shall this be attributed to the glory of God or to the glory of man? Who can confess that He is Lord, except they confess by the Holy Ghost? If this was to be a forced confession, how would that give God glory; how would it be to the glory of God the Father? Would the vast majority of mankind writhing in hell forever bring glory to God?

Why does God command us to love our enemies, if it is His own purpose to punish and torture His enemies in eternity, whether they have heard the gospel or not? Is God a hypocrite? Shall not all His enemies eventually submit themselves unto Him through the greatness of His power of love and salvation? Is not the carnal mind of all men the enemy of God? Has He not a sure fire plan to rectify this? Or does He leave it up to the unregenerate carnal mind to remedy it as if it could? If we are commanded to overcome evil with good, may we not expect God to do same? Is the idea of eternal punishment compatible with this? If the goodness of God leads to repentance, why do we teach eternal torment to sinners? If there are those who shall be tormented forever with fire and brimstone in the presence of the Lamb and His holy angels, does this mean that the Lamb and His angels are in their hell also?

If the Father gave Christ to die for all men and it is the Father's will that He lose none? Why do men insist that He will lose most? Though He chooses to lose none, would not the view of everlasting torment mean--that at the end or consummation of the working of God's sovereign purpose for good by His age abiding Spirit, the vast majority of His creation will then be further from perfection than at the beginning of man's creation before the fall? Is God not trustworthy to complete all the work He began? Did not Jesus promise that He would draw all men unto Himself? Is God any better than the sinner if His love is granted only to those who love Him? And if he does good to only those that do good to him, do not even sinners do that? Are not all men sinners? Is the wisdom that comes from above based in wisdom that is full of mercy and good fruits without partiality, or with partiality?

Is the power of natural life or death really any more in the power of men's hands than is the sure power of spiritual life or death? Is man personally responsible, or has he any control or say in the condemnation that comes upon all men in conception and natural birth? If not, then how can he be held responsible to bring the free gift of life upon himself in spiritual rebirth? Can men ask or order the spirit when to come or where to go concerning initial rebirth? Does he have any more control over it than he does the wind?

If the Lord originally appointed all men to spiritually die, would He not be less than just and righteous--and even obligated, if He did not eventually appoint and grant them all personal impartation of the Spirit of life? If you think that it was all the woman's fault, why should the rest of humanity be eternally doomed for someone else's mistake? stating He made provision for all to live means nothing, because do not most agree that we can do nothing of ourselves to effect our salvation--except the Holy spirit personally invites each individual and reveals Christ's gift unto them?

Where can we find any form of true love, long-suffering or justice if mankind is going to suffer billions of ages of torment for every act of sin and every evil word or thought expressed during his mere twenty, forty or eighty odd years on earth, Where are these things even though man himself made no choice to come into this evil world, nor can he flee his captivity of temptation and passions unless he be called and chosen of God out of this death? Does He deserve eternal torment for not accepting a God whom He cannot see, nor hear nor touch and consequently cannot believe. Does this vindicate God's justice, His equity, His mercy, His compassion, His love, His holiness. His righteousness, His repentance etc.?

Is not the doctrine and spirit of eternal damnation, a condemnation? Whereas, on the other hand, is not the nature and purpose of Christ to take men out of whatever hell they may be in rather than to cast them in or leave them in that state for evermore? If he can deliver even the most wicked souls from the lowest hell on earth, is it any more difficult for Him to deliver souls from death and hell under the earth? Does he have any pleasure in the death of the wicked?

Is death to continue eternally as in eternal hellfire? Is life to cease eternally as in annihilation? Or is death the very last enemy that is to be destroyed as in reconciliation? If the actual power of sin and death is destroyed and done away with, what is left to separate man from God? Is not the Old Test. law a perfect type and shadow? Is death stronger than divine life? Is lust stronger than love? Is sin stronger than the righteousness of grace? What other thing than life could be left after death, if it ends in a resurrection at the end of the millennium and thereafter a second death begins? Is fire necessarily punitive or evil in all applications?

Does God indeed lock up all men in the stubbornness of death that He might damn them forever? Or does he lock them up that he should be merciful unto them all? Can not He who locked as He willed also unlock as the wills? He who hardens, does He not also soften? Is it not God alone that can initiate and then accomplish a change in these locked up rebellious hearts? Or can they do it apart from His divine convicting and cleansing action of grace?

If it is God's will for man to forgive seventy times seven, how is it that God would forever hold unforgiveness from mankind? Did not even Jesus Himself pray in the Father's will--Father, forgive them for they know not what they do---in refusing to accept Him as their Saviour Messiah, or in crucifying Him? Does not God obey His own edicts? Is He not bound to the fulfilling of His word?

If vindictiveness, retaliation, vengeance and punishing sentence of judgment lie in the heart of God forever, or even at all, why is it He has purposed to purge and burn all such things out of the hearts of His own creation? If God loves the sinner but hates the sin, does it not make more sense that His plan would be to ultimately judge and destroy the sin rather than the sinner? Would He punish them more than would be necessary for their own good? Are not all men the object of His love and not His wrath?

Is it not always the purpose of God's fire to cause judgment upon sin and to burn up that which causes it? Or is it God's loving purpose to destroy the unfortunate vessel that is empowered and overpowered by the overwhelming unseen forces of sin and evil that are inherently at work in him? Is man to be judged forever because of imputed unrighteousness which God himself put upon him in Adam's transgression? If the Creator knew man could resist His love forever, why did He even create man with His capacity to love? Does that initial form of God's saving love begin with an act of God's will or an act of man's will? In other words, does it originate from God or does it originate from man himself?

Who determines the fulfillment and the timing of all prophecy as recorded in scripture? God or men? Who determines the final outcome of ALL things? God or men? In whose hands is the ultimate destiny of the soul of every living creature? God's or men's? Is love, or is torment, the fulfillment of the law? Can they fulfill the law of love who are rendered eternally miserable?

In whose words and ideas have you been trusting? God's or men's? Are not the correct answers to the foregoing questions to be found in the overall revelation of the holy Bible.? Surely, "the heart of the righteous studieth to answer." Prv.15:28.

Sensible, reconcilable answers to these questions can not be found in the traditional church belief of eternal hell, nor are they to be found in the belief of a determined annihilation. But, they can be answered satisfactorily in the glorious God honouring truths of Christian universalism and ultimate universal reconciliation.

ALL or SOME?

Why is it that although we find the words "ALL" and "EVERY" in many unqualified passages of scripture, man in his carnal reasoning and ungodly doubts, continues to try to limit and qualify God's beautiful truths contained in the outline for the total plan of creation, redemption and restoration by His amazing grace? We hear and read a lot of "ifs" and "buts" in secular writings, which God did not add. These are but vain attempts trying to limit, restrict, restrain, or modify plain statements and principles in the Bible that do not in their pure, unqualified and unadulterated forms, fit the preconceived ideas, molds and traditions of men.

We list here for a comparative study, some scripture often presented in a qualified and confined sense--to show how far from the fullness of truth and how completely out of harmony to the total of God's written word...is the belief of "eternal torment." We sincerely ask the proponents of this belief to consider the following questions. Even though the scriptures clearly say otherwise, WHY DO MEN DOGMATICALLY BELIEVE AND INSIST IT TO BE TRUE THAT....

"God worketh [only SOME, not] ALL things after...His own will"? Eph.1:11; Isa.46:10,11.

"Of Him, and through Him, and to Him are [only SOME, not] ALL things"? Ro.11:36.

"God should taste death for [only SOME, not] EVERY man. For it became Him for whom are [only SOME, not] ALL things, and by whom are [only SOME, not] ALL things"? Heb.2:10.

"[only SOME, not ] ALL things are of God"? 2Cor.5:18; 1Cor.8:6.

"He might fill [only SOME, not] ALL things"? Eph.4:10.

"He is the Lord of [only SOME, not] ALL"? Ac.10:38.

"It is the same God which worketh [only some, not] ALL in [only SOME, not] ALL"? 1Cor.12:6; Eph.1:23.

"[only SOME, not] "ALL things were created...FOR HIM...that in [only SOME, not] ALL things He might have the preeminence.....and having made peace through the blood of His cross, by Him to reconcile [only SOME, not] ALL things unto Himself...things in earth or things in heaven"? Col.1:16-20.

"In the dispensation of the fullness of times, He might gather together in one [only SOME, not] ALL things in Christ...in heaven...on earth"? Eph.1:10.

"And [only SOME,not] EVERY creature which is in heaven, and on the earth and under the earth...and all that are in them, heard I saying, blessing and honor...be unto Him"? Rev.5:13.

"Thou hast created [only SOME, not] ALL things...FOR THY PLEASURE"? Rev.4:11.

"It is written, as I live saith the Lord, [only SOME, not] EVERY knee shall bow to me, and [only SOME, not] EVERY tongue shall confess to God. So then [only SOME, not] EVERY one of us shall give account of himself to God"? Ro.14:11,12; Isa.45:23.

"At the name of Jesus [only some, not] EVERY knee should bow of things in heaven and things in earth, and things under the earth; and that [only SOME, not] EVERY tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of the Father"? Phil.2:11.

"God in [only SOME, not] ALL things may be glorified"? 1Ptr.4:11.

"The glory of the Lord should be revealed and [only some, not] ALL flesh shall it together."? Isa.40:5.

"As in Adam ALL die, even so in Christ shall [only SOME, not] ALL be made alive. But [only SOME, not] EVERY man....He must reign till He hath put [only SOME, not] ALL enemies under His feet...And when [only SOME, not] ALL things shall be subdued unto Him, then shall the Son...be subject unto Him that put [only SOME, not] ALL things under Him, that God may be ALL in [only SOME, not] ALL"? 1Cor.15:22-28.

"God hath concluded them [only SOME, not] ALL in unbelief that He might have mercy upon [only SOME, not] ALL"? Ro.11:32; 5:18,19.

"By the offense of one, judgment came upon [only SOME, not] ALL men unto condemnation; even so by the righteousness of One, the fee gift comes upon [only SOME, not] ALL men unto justification of life"? Ro.5:18,19.

"I, if I be lifted up...will draw [only SOME, not] ALL men unto me"? Jn.12:32.

"Unto thee shall [only SOME, not] ALL flesh come"? Psa.65:2.

"God quickeneth {only SOME, not] ALL things" (1Tim.6:13) and He will have [only SOME, not] ALL men to be saved and come unto...the truth"? 1Tim.2:4.

[only SOME, not] "ALL Israel shall be saved (Ro.11:26) and that He is "the living God, who is the Saviour of [only SOME, not] ALL men, specially of those that believe"?1Tim.4:10.

[only SOME, not] "ALL men through Him might believe" (Jn.1:7) for He is "the true light which lighteth [only SOME, not] EVERY man that cometh into the world"? Jn.1:9.

"They may [only SOME, not] ALL call upon the name of the Lord"? Zep.3:9.

[only SOME, not] "ALL men should come to repentance" (Ac.17:30; 2Ptr.3:9) even though "He gave Himself a ransom for [only SOME not] ALL to be testified in due time"? 1Tim.2:6.

"They shall [only SOME, not] ALL know me from the least to the greatest of them" Jer.31:34; Heb.8:11.

"If we let Him thus alone, [only SOME, not] ALL men will believe on Him"? Jn.11:48.

[only SOME, not] "ALL that are in the graves shall hear His voice, and come forth"? Jn.5:28, 29.

[only SOME, not] "ALL His works shall praise Him"? (Psa.145:9,10). [only SOME, not] ALL the people"? Psa.67:3, 5; 86:9.

[only SOME,not] "ALL dominions shall serve and obey Him" (Dan.7:27) and "that [only SOME, not] ALL people, nations and languages, should serve Him"? Da.7:14; Rev.15:4.